This is a question that is bothering me just because I cannot find a seemingly simple mistake in my work for a question I know the answer to intuitively and through another method.
I was looking at a situation where we had
$$X_1, X_2, X_3 \sim \text{Unif}(200,600)$$ $$Y = \max\{{X_i}\}$$
where these three draws are i.i.d.
It is not hard to see that because of the independence,
$$P(\max(X_1 , X_2 , X_3) \leq y) = P(X_1 \leq y) \cdot P(X_2 \leq y) \cdot P(X_3 \leq y)$$ $$= \left(\frac{y-200}{400}\right)^3$$
Now we know $$E(Y) = \int^{600}_{200} y \cdot (f(y)) \ dy$$
where $f(y)$ is the density, easily found with calculus, so we should have:
$$\int^{600}_{200} y \cdot \frac{3(y - 200)^3}{64000000} \ dy$$ $$ = \boxed{500}$$
This answer makes complete sense to me. If taking one draw from the uniform distribution, the expected max is just the average, or 1/2 of the way from 200 to 600. If taking two draws, the expected maximum should be 2/3rds of the way from 200 to 600, or 466.666. If taking three draws, the expected maximum should be 3/4ths of the way from 200 to 600, or 500. So on and so forth.
However, I initially tried to solve this problem with a different formula:
$$E(Y) = \int^{600}_{200} (1 - P(Y \leq y)) \ dy$$ $$= \int^{600}_{200} \left[1 - \left(\frac{y-200}{400}\right)^3\right] dy$$
When I plug this into WolframAlpha, I get 300, which clearly makes no sense. I tried it with the case for one draw and two draws as well, and the formula I am using seems to consistently undershoot what I should be seeing. Actually, it consistently undershoots the answer by 200 it seems. Doing the problem by hand also gives me the same curious nonsense. I am baffled at where I have gone wrong in setting up this form of a solution, and am sure I am missing something obvious.