Im reading this paper momentarily, and in it (section 2.1.) the predicted output $\hat{\textbf{y}}$ of a single hidden layer neural network is given by
\begin{align} \hat{\textbf{y}} = \sigma(\textbf{x}\textbf{W}_1)+b)\textbf{W}_2, \end{align}
where $\textbf{x}$ is the input vector, $\textbf{W}_1,\textbf{W}_2$ the corresponding weight matrices and $b$ the bias weights.
Two questions arise for me:
- Why isn't the activation function applied to the output layer, as in
\begin{align} \hat{\textbf{y}} = \sigma(\sigma(\textbf{x}\textbf{W}_1)+b)\textbf{W}_2) \end{align}
- Why isn't a bias weight added to the output layer, as in
\begin{align} \hat{\textbf{y}} = \sigma(\textbf{x}\textbf{W}_1)+b_1)\textbf{W}_2 + b_2 \end{align}
Any intuition about this?
Happy weekend, cheers