I'm having some trouble with convergence in distribution and convergence in probability, mainly because I'm getting different results that seem to contradict each other using the Central limit theorem and the Law of large numbers.
Let $(X_1,...,X_n)$ be a $n$ independent random variables such that $\forall i\in\{{1,...,n}\}: X_i\sim Ber(\frac{1}{5})$, and let $\bar{X_n}=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$. Calculate $\lim_{n \to \infty} P(\sum_{i=1}^n X_i > \frac{1}{5}n+\frac{\sqrt n}{5})$
Now here is my problem, The result of LLN is that the sample mean converges in probability to $E(X)=\frac{1}{5}$, So that also means that $(*)\bar{X_n}\xrightarrow{d} \frac{1}{5}$
Ultimately I can use that to get
$P(\sum_{i=1}^n X_i > \frac{1}{5}n+\frac{\sqrt n}{5}) = P(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i > \frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5\sqrt n}) = 1- P(\bar{X_n} \leq \frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5\sqrt n})$ and since $\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5\sqrt n} > \frac{1}{5}$ and $(*)$ I get that the limit is equal to $1-1=0$.
However, using CLT I could've written that probability as follows:
$P(\sum_{i=1}^n X_i > \frac{1}{5}n+\frac{\sqrt n}{5}) = P(\frac{\bar{X_n} -\frac{1}{5}}{\frac{2}{5 \sqrt n}} \leq \frac{1}{2})$
and I know that the limit of that expression should be $\phi(\frac{1}{2})$ which is definitely not 0.
One thing I notice is that doing it the first way, the RHS of is bigger than $\frac{1}{5}$ but as $n$ tends to $\infty$ that is not the case anymore so maybe that could be the reason of why it would be wrong doing it that way. But generally, should these two methods be equivalent? Or is one different than the other, and if so which one should I use? And how does that not contradict the fact that $\xrightarrow{p}$ implies $\xrightarrow{d}$?
Thanks.