I have time series data and am modeling the outcome using multilevel modeling. When I within-person standardize the IV and the DV I get a different pattern of results than when the DV is unstandardized and the IV is centered (but not standardized). This seems to be due to the within-person standardized DV, not the IV (note: I realize the coefficient will change with standardization, but not why the pattern of results changes).
By within-person standardization, I mean:
- $y_{it} = (y_{it} - y_{i}) / s_{yi}$ where $y_{it}$ is the DV for individual $i$ at time $t$, $y_{i}$ is the mean of the DV for individual $i$, and $s_{yi}$ is the SD for person $i$ ($s_{yi} = \sqrt{\Sigma_{t}(y_{it}-y_{i})^2/(T_{i}-1)}$).
- $x_{it} = (x_{it} - x_{i}) / s_{xi}$ where $x_{it}$ is the IV for individual $i$ at time $t$, $x_{i}$ is the mean of the IV for individual $i$, and $s_{xi}$ is the SD for person $i$ ($s_{xi} = \sqrt{\Sigma_{t}(x_{it}-x_{i})^2/(T_{i}-1)}$)
In Model 1 I have:
- DV: not centered, not standardized
- IV: within-person centered (not standardized)
- IV: grand-mean centered (not standardized)
In Model 2 I have:
- DV: within-person standardized
- IV: within-person standardized
- IV: grand-mean centered (not standardized)
In Model 1 the within-person standardized IV not associated with the DV, and the grand-mean centered IV is negatively associated. In Model 2 the within-person standardized IV is negatively associated with the (within-person standardized) DV, and the grand-mean centered IV is not associated with it.
Why would standardizing the DV change the pattern of the results in this way? Is there a different interpretation of the coefficients in Model 1 vs. Model 2?
Notes:
- 'IV' above refers to the same variable, just transformed as described
- My actual model has more than 1 IV included