With a traditional A/B test, you have X1, X2 site visitors and Y1, Y2 conversions. I understand how this is generating two binomial distributions with sample parameters (n1, p1), (n2, p2), where n = number of site visitors (X) and p = X/Y.
Intuitively, I can see how you could do a Monte Carlo simulation here to see how often you witnessed a sample parameter of p2 or higher if the population parameter was actually p1. This alone would give you the intuition as to whether your experiment was likely to be significant or within the realm of chance. However, I also know you can simply plug these numbers into A/B test calculators to get the desired result.
My question is- how can I do the same when I want to compare cost per order? For clarity, these are marketing campaigns I'm comparing.
I have two variants, A & B, with X1, X2 in spend, and Y1, Y2 in conversions. I now care about how the spend is converted into orders (i.e. for A we spent X1 and that generated Y1 orders). But, these are no longer binomial distributions and as such I'm confused as to how we compare them.
Any help would be much appreciated!