My understanding is that if you are finding the maximum likelihood estimate of $\mu$ assuming the data came from a normal distribution, and then you want to find a confidence interval for the estimate, you end up with the estimate being $\bar{X}$ and $I(\theta)$ is $\frac{1}{\sigma^2}$, so the confidence interval is:
$$\bar{X}-z_{\alpha/2}\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}\leq \mu \leq \bar{X}+z_{\alpha/2}\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}$$
This is the same formula you use if you know the data is from a normal distribution but you don't know the variance and you want to calculate a confidence interval for the mean of the distribution.
But my question is, my understanding is that when the asymptotic variance from a MLE contains a population parameter like the population variance or a population parameter, you can simply replace it with the estimated parameter, because the estimated parameter converges to the actual parameter. In this case, I would naturally replace $\sigma$ with $S$. However, the basic formula for the confidence interval of a mean for a normal distribution with unknown variance is
$$\bar{X}-t_{n-1,\alpha/2}\frac{S}{\sqrt{n}}\leq \mu \leq \bar{X}+t_{n-1,\alpha/2}\frac{S}{\sqrt{n}}$$
So it uses a t-distribution, which is strange because I thought all you had to do was replace the unknown parameters in the asymptotic variance with estimates, and now I'm doubting what I thought. When constructing the asymptotic variance, can you replace any occurrences of $\sigma$ with $S$? Or a proportion $p$ with $\hat{p}$? And then how does this affect the confidence interval? Any help would be appreciated.