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Suppose that I have known that $X$ and $Y$ have high dependency, $Y$ and $Z$ have high dependency, and $Z$ and $X$ also have high dependency through three different 2-copulas.

Suppose I fit one 3-copula, will my results be superior to the ones where I fitted three 2-copulas?

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    $\begingroup$ The results will be different. When you fit a 3-copula you are estimating the full 3-variate distribution of $(X,Y,Z).$ A trio of (marginal) 2-copulas usually does not determine that 3-variate distribution. Whether the results are "superior" or not then depends on what you need to estimate. If your interests lie in the 2-variate marginals and you don't require perfect mathematical consistency among them, the three 2-copula solution might be better. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Mar 29, 2022 at 18:38

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Having a 3-copula vs. three 2-copulas it is a bit like being able to view a 3D object in 3D from every angle vs. only being able to see three 2D shots of the object, each from a different angle (where a different dimension is completely hidden when seen from each of the three angles). The 2D shots tell you something but not everything about the 3D object.

From a 3-copula, you will be able to obtain the density $f_{X,Y,Z}(x,y,z)$ of any point $(x,y,z)$ and the probability $P(X\in R_X, Y\in R_Y, Z\in R_Z)$ of any region $(X\in R_X, Y\in R_Y, Z\in R_Z)$ for arbitrary regions $R_X$, $R_Y$ and $R_Z$. You will also be able to obtain conditional densities and probabilities such as $f_{X \mid Y,Z}(x \mid y,z)$ and $P(X\in R_X \mid Y\in R_Y, Z\in R_Z)$. You will not be able to obtain any of that from the three 2-copulas alone.

Whether you can call that superior or not depends on how you define superior. If you do not care about such densities and probabilities, then the 3-copula is probably not superior to the three 2-copulas. If you do, then it is.

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