patients are randomızed to elther treatment, their pressures are measured at baseline, treatment is administered for two weeks and $\mathrm{BP}$ is then measured a second time. The treatment effect is estimated by the average change in $\mathrm{BP}$ for group A minus the average change for group $\mathrm{B}$.
Suppose that BP measurements from distinct individuals are independent with variance $\sigma^2$ and that the correlation between repeated observations on a single individual is $\rho$. Then the variance of the longitudinal estimate is $$ 2 \sigma^2(1-\rho) / n .$$
I cannot understand why the variance of the longitudinal estimate is not $\dfrac{\sigma^2(\rho)}{n}$ and I do not understand the origin of the scalar multiplication by two.