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patients are randomızed to elther treatment, their pressures are measured at baseline, treatment is administered for two weeks and $\mathrm{BP}$ is then measured a second time. The treatment effect is estimated by the average change in $\mathrm{BP}$ for group A minus the average change for group $\mathrm{B}$.

Suppose that BP measurements from distinct individuals are independent with variance $\sigma^2$ and that the correlation between repeated observations on a single individual is $\rho$. Then the variance of the longitudinal estimate is $$ 2 \sigma^2(1-\rho) / n .$$

I cannot understand why the variance of the longitudinal estimate is not $\dfrac{\sigma^2(\rho)}{n}$ and I do not understand the origin of the scalar multiplication by two.

https://doi.org/10.1002/sim.4780111406

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  • $\begingroup$ Why do you think the variance should be $2\sigma^2\rho$? $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 14:41
  • $\begingroup$ The exchangeable $\mathbb{E}[\epsilon\epsilon^T]$ matrix is $\rho$ on all non-diagonal entries. $\mathbb{E}[\epsilon\epsilon^T]=\sigma^2\Omega=\Sigma$. I think the variance is in the $\Sigma$ and is found on a non-diagonal entry. @statmerkur $\endgroup$
    – user318514
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 14:45
  • $\begingroup$ Let $\epsilon$ the residual of the regression model. $\Omega=cov(\epsilon|X)$ with X=data matrix. $\endgroup$
    – user318514
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 14:51
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    $\begingroup$ @TransIndigenous AFAICS $2 \sigma^2(1-\rho) / n$ is the variance of the average change in BP for group $A$ or $B$, respectively. The variance of the longitudinal estimator of the treatment effect should be twice that quantity if we assume independence between the groups. See my answer for the derivation. $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 18:15

2 Answers 2

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If $Var(X)=\sigma_X^2$ and $Var(Y)=\sigma_Y^2$ and $Cor(X,Y)=\rho$,

and assuming without loss of generality $E[X]=E[Y]=0$, so $E[X^2]=E[Y^2]=\sigma^2$,

then $Cov(X,Y)=E[XY]=\rho \sigma_X^{\,} \sigma_Y^{\,}$,

and thus $Var(X-Y)= E[(X-Y)^2]=E[X^2]-2E[XY]+E[Y^2]= \sigma_X^2 - 2\rho \sigma_X^{\,} \sigma_Y^{\,} + \sigma_Y^2$.

If $\sigma_X^2=\sigma_Y^2 = \sigma^2$ we can simplify this to $Var(X-Y)=2(1-\rho)\sigma^2$.

In this question, that is the variance of the change in blood pressure of an individual. The division by $n$ is to see the variance in the average change across $n$ individuals.

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The variance of the longitudinal estimator of the treatment effect should be $$ \begin{align} &\mathbb{V}\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\left(X_{A,t_2,i}-X_{A,t_1,i}\right)-\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=1}^n\left(X_{B,t_2,j}-X_{B,t_1,j}\right)\right) \\ &=\frac{1}{n^2}\left[\mathbb{V}\left(\sum_{i=1}^n\left(X_{A,t_2,i}-X_{A,t_1,i}\right)\right)+\mathbb{V}\left(\sum_{j=1}^n\left(X_{B,t_2,j}-X_{B,t_1,j}\right)\right)\right] \\ &= \frac{1}{n^2} \cdot 2 \cdot \left[ \mathbb{V}\left(\sum_{i=1}^nX_{A,t_2,i}\right) + \mathbb{V}\left(\sum_{i=1}^nX_{A,t_1,i}\right) - 2\cdot \operatorname{Cov}\left(\sum_{i=1}^nX_{A,t_2,i}, \sum_{i=1}^nX_{A,t_1,i}\right) \right] \\ &= \frac{2}{n^2} \left(n \cdot \sigma^2 + n \cdot \sigma^2 - 2 \cdot n \cdot \rho \cdot \sigma^2 \right) = \frac{2}{n} \left(2 \cdot \sigma^2 - 2 \cdot \rho \cdot \sigma^2 \right) \\ &= \frac{4}{n} \sigma^2 \left(1-\rho\right). \end{align} $$

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    $\begingroup$ Your extra factor of $2$ is for the variance of the difference between the mean change in A and the mean change in B (i.e. difference-in-difference), while I suspect the original expression was just the variance for the mean change in one of them. $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 22:15
  • $\begingroup$ @Henry I agree with your variance of difference vs. variance of difference-in-differences remark, see my last comment to the OP's question. However, in the paper it says "The treatment effect [in the longitudinal design] is estimated by the average change in BP for group $A$ minus the average change for group $B$." and "[...] the variance of the cross-sectional estimate of the treatment effect is $2\sigma^2/n$ where $n$ is the number of persons in each group; the variance of the longitudinal estimate is $2\sigma^2(1 - \rho)/n$." So the original expression seems to be off by a factor of $2$. $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Sep 18, 2022 at 22:38

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