I start with three independent random variables, $X_1, X_2, X_3$. They are each normally distributed with:
$$X_i \sim N(\mu_i, \sigma^2), i = 1, 2, 3.$$
I then have three transformations,
$$\eqalign{ Y_1 &= -X_1/\sqrt{2} + X_2/\sqrt{2} \cr Y_2 &= -X_1/\sqrt{3} - X_2/\sqrt{3} + X_3/\sqrt{3} \cr Y_3 &= X_1/\sqrt{6} + X_2/\sqrt{6} + 2X_3 / \sqrt{6} \cr }$$
I am supposed to show that when $\mu_i = 0,$ $i = 1, 2, 3,$ $(Y_1^2 + Y_2^2 + Y_3^2)/\sigma^2 \sim \chi^2(3)$. I have also shown the transformations to preserve the independence, as the transformation matrix is orthogonal.
I have already shown that the expectations of $Y_1, Y_2, Y_3$ is 0 and their variances are all the same. Using the normal pdf, I have shown that:
$$Y_i^2 \sim \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} \exp(-2x^2 / 2\sigma^2).$$
I thought about applying a substitution of $z = 2x^2 / \sigma^2$ to get the exponent into a similar form as the chi-square's $\exp(-x/2)$ form, but I'm stuck on what to do with the constants outside to get them to look similar. Could someone offer a hand?