We have data $X_1, \dots, X_n$ which are i.i.d copies of $X$. Where we denote $\mathbb{E}[X] = \mu$, and $X$ has finite variance.
We define the truncated sample mean:
$\begin{align} \hat{\mu}^{\tau} := \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i =1}^n \psi_{\tau}(X_i) \end{align}$
Where the truncation operator is defined as:
$\begin{align} \psi_{\tau}(x) = (|x| \wedge \tau) \; \text{sign}(x), \quad x \in \mathbb{R}, \quad \tau > 0 \end{align}$
The bias for this truncated estimator is then defined as:
Bias $:= \mathbb{E}(\hat{\mu}^{\tau}) - \mu$
And I saw the inequality:
$\begin{align} |\text{Bias}| = |\mathbb{E}[(X - \text{sign}(X)\tau) \mathbb{I}_{\{|X| > \tau\}}]| \leq \frac{\mathbb{E}[X^2]}{\tau} \end{align}$
But I am not sure how this was derived.