I'm trying to create an example of a distribution with all positive values, standard deviation > mean, and skewness =0 (third moment). I cannot. Is that possible? Can you prove it mathematically? Thanks.
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$\begingroup$ @GabyLP when you say "skewness" do you mean third moment skewness -, that is $E[(\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma})^3]$ - or some other skewness measure like second Pearson skewness, Bowley skewness, etc? $\endgroup$– Glen_bCommented Jun 27, 2023 at 2:34
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1$\begingroup$ third moment @Glen_b $\endgroup$– GabyLPCommented Jun 27, 2023 at 7:26
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$\begingroup$ Can we prove this using Holder’s inequality? This reminds me of mathoverflow.net/a/278189 $\endgroup$– user225256Commented Jun 27, 2023 at 12:54
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$\begingroup$ @Matt Holder's Inequality concerns absolute moments. Thus, although it can be helpful, it will not directly make the demonstration. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Jun 27, 2023 at 14:05
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$\begingroup$ @whuber, I know, but take some inspiration from the answer I linked to! $\endgroup$– user225256Commented Jun 27, 2023 at 14:09
2 Answers
This is impossible. Suppose $X$ is the distribution, and let $a,b,c$ be its first three moments, $a=E[X], b=E[X^2], c=E[X^3]$.
We derive three relationships for these variables, and show that they can not be satisfied simulateously.
First, by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: \begin{align} E[\sqrt{X^\phantom{1}}\!\! \sqrt{X^3}] &\le \sqrt{E[X]}\sqrt{E[X^3]}\\ (E[X^2])^2 &\le E[X]E[X^3]\\ b^2 &\le ac \\ \end{align} where $\sqrt{X}$ and $\sqrt{X^3}$ are positive by the positivity of $X$.
Second, since skewness is 0, \begin{align} \phantom{skewness = skewness = = = }0 &= E[(X-a)^3]\\ &= E[X^3]-3aE[X^2]+3a^2E[X]-a^3\\ &= c-3ab+3a^3-a^3\\ &= c-3ab+2a^3 \end{align}
Third, since the standard deviation is greater than the mean, \begin{align} \text{variance} &> \text{mean}^2 \phantom{+mean} \\ b - a^2 &> a^2\\ b &> 2a^2\\ \end{align} and, since $a^2$ is positive, also $b>a^2$.
Together these yield $$0\ge b^2-ac=(b-2a^2)(b-a^2)>0$$ which is impossible.
There is in fact a generic lower bound on skewness of strictly positive data:
$$ g_1 > \frac\sigma\mu - \frac\mu\sigma. $$
This shows nicely why you are running into difficulties: the coefficient of variation $\sigma/\mu$ of your desired distribution exceeds $1$, so the positive term in this lower bound is bigger than the negative term. See also this answer.
In response to @cdalitz's comment below, please see this PubPeer post for an elementary (if lengthy) proof.
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2$\begingroup$ As this lower bound is far from obvious (I think), can you please add some explanations why it holds? $\endgroup$– cdalitzCommented Jun 27 at 12:06