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Let $(X_j)_{j= \mathbb 0}^\infty$ a fixed realization of strictly stationary AR(1) process: $$X_j = 0.9 \,X_{j-1}+ \eta_{j}, \quad (\eta_j) \overset{iid}{\sim} N(0,1)$$ For each $n$, consider $B_n\sim Bernoulli(c/n)$, with $c>0$. Suppose $(X_j)_{j= \mathbb 0}^\infty$ and $(B_n)_{n \in \mathbb N}$ are independent. Define $Y_{jn} = X_j Z_n$, where $Z_n = B_n - c/n$. Note that $E[Z_n]=0$ and $Z_n$ take values $1- c/n$ and $-c/n$ with probability $c/n$ and $1- c/n$, respectively. Now define $$Y_n = \sum_{j=0}^n Y_{jn}$$

For each $jn$, let $\mu_{jn}(dx)$ be the probability distribution of $Y_{jn}= X_j Z_n$. Now, consider $r>0$ and $I = (-r,r)$. I want to find a formula for: $$\int_I x \mu_n(dx)= \sum_{j=0}^n \int x \mathbb 1_{I} \mu_{jn}(dx), \quad \mu_n(dx) := \sum_{j=0}^n \mu_{jn}(dx)\label{I}\tag{I}$$ and investigate the almost sure convergence of $\int_I x \mu_n(dx)$, as $n \to \infty$.

First, I tried to find $\int x \mathbb \mu_{jn}(dx)$. For $n$ large enough, we have: $$ \begin{aligned} \int_{I} x \mathbb \mu_{jn}(dx)&= X_j \left(1-\frac{c}{n}\right) \mathbb P\left[-r \leq X_j \left(1-\frac{c}{n}\right) \leq r\right] + X_j (-\frac{c}{n}) \mathbb P[-r \leq X_j (-\frac{c}{n}) \leq r]\\ &=X_j \left(1-\frac{c}{n}\right) \mathbb P\left[\frac{-r}{1-\frac{c}{n}} \leq X_j \leq \frac{r}{1-\frac{c}{n}} \right] - \frac{X_jc}{n} \mathbb P \left[ \frac{r}{-\frac{c}{n}} \leq X_j\leq \frac{-r}{-\frac{c}{n}} \right] \end{aligned} $$ Given that we are dealing with a Gaussian $AR(1)$, I believe that $X_j$ has a normal distribution. For example, see here to see that the distribution of $X_1$ has distribution $N\left(0, \frac{1}{1- (0.9)^2} \right)$. But I'm having trouble finding a formula for (\ref{I}) that allows me to analyze its convergence. Could you help me to finda a formula for (\ref{I}) ?

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  • $\begingroup$ Your question is unclear. Are you trying to ask why (I) holds (of course, the "$n \to \infty$" in (I) is not compatible there) or something else? $\endgroup$
    – Zhanxiong
    Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 19:06
  • $\begingroup$ Note that for each $n$, I have the integral $\int_{I}x dF_{Y_n}(x)$. Since this integral depends on $n$, as the Bernoulli parameter is $c/n$, I believe it is possible to analyze the convergence of this integral as $n$ tends to infinity. That's why I want to find a specific formula for $\int_{I}x dF_{Y_n}(x)$, in order to analyze its convergence. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 19:48
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    $\begingroup$ Because you mention "truncation" in the title but these are not truncations of random variables (they are mixtures with atoms at zero), are you sure your mathematical formulation corresponds to what you are thinking of? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 24, 2023 at 19:36
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    $\begingroup$ In order for people that are not so great at reading text to more easily read the question it might be better to start the post with a simple introduction instead of a bombardement with definitions and considerations without having first a background or goal that helps reading trough very long text. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 24, 2023 at 21:18
  • $\begingroup$ "let $\mu_{jn}(dx)$ be the probability distribution of $Y_{jn}= X_j Z_n$" this is unclear. What sort of probability distribution are you refering to? What is $dx$ doing there as input of the function and how do you think that you can integrate it? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 9:01

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$$\begin{array}{} Y_n &= &\sum_{j=0}^n Y_{jn}\\ & = &\sum_{j=0}^n X_j Z_n \\ & =& Z_n \sum_{j=0}^n X_j \\ & =& Z_n S_n \\ \end{array}$$

Where in the end I redefined the sum of the $X_j$ as $S_n$.

This makes $Y_n$ a scaled and shifted Bernoulli variable with a point masses of $c/n$ and $1-c/n$ at $(1-c/n) S_n$ and $-c/n S_n$.

Because $Y_n$ is a discrete variable we can replace your integral from $-r$ to $r$ with a sum and it will be equal to

$$S_n (1-c/n)c/n (I_{|(1-c/n) S_n| < r} - I_{|-c/n S_n| < r }) \approx \frac{c S_n}{n} (I_{|(1-c/n) S_n| < r} - I_{|-c/n S_n| < r }) $$

This term $\frac{c S_n}{n}$ is like a 1,1,0 ARIMA process divided by $n$, I would conjecture that this converges in the same way as the random walk converges https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1099655/

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  • $\begingroup$ Although, $(X_j)_{j=0}^{\infty}$ is a fixed realization, I believe we can calculate the probabilities $\mathbb P\left[\frac{-r}{1-\frac{c}{n}} \leq X_j \leq \frac{r}{1-\frac{c}{n}} \right]$ and $P \left[ \frac{r}{-\frac{c}{n}} \leq X_j\leq \frac{-r}{-\frac{c}{n}} \right]$. What I'm saying is that we can study the almost sure convergence of the integral $\int_{I} x \mathbb d F_{Y_{n}}(x)$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 2:50
  • $\begingroup$ @AndréGoulart what sort of distribution does $F_{Y_n}(x)$ represent according to you? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 7:58
  • $\begingroup$ Dear, thank you for your comment. I made a huge confusion. For a moment, I mixed up the definitions of sums of probability measures with their convolution. I have now edited the question correctly, please see the latest update. If you have any further questions, please let me know. Thank you. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 8:56
  • $\begingroup$ Dear, thank you for your answer. I'm not very familiar with Brownian Motion, but I can conclude that $S_n/n \to E[X_0]=0$ a.s. due to the ergodicity of AR(1). I really learned a lot from your answer. Given that the indicator function is obviously bounded and $S_n/n \to E[X_0]=0$ a.s., I can now conclude that the integral $\int_I x d\mu_{n}(x)$ converges a.s. to zero. Thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 6:40
  • $\begingroup$ @AndréGoulart I made a little mistake, it is not a Brownian motion, an I(1) process, but instead slightly more complex and an ARIMA process. I guess that the conclusion will remain the same. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 8:29

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