Consider a variant of the classical linear model:
$y_i=a + b\left(x_i-\bar{x} \right)+e_i $
Because $e_i \sim N \left (0, \sigma^2 \right)$, $y_i \sim N \left(a+ b \left(x_i -\bar{x} \right), \sigma^2 \right)$.
The OLS estimates of the slope and the intercept coefficient are:
$\hat{b}=\frac{\sum \left(x_i - \bar{x} \right) \left(y_i-\bar{y} \right)}{\sum \left(x_i - \bar{x} \right)^2} $ (as usual), but $\hat{a}=\bar{y}$
The two estimates, being a linear combination of normal variables are themselves normal with $\hat{b}\sim N \left( b ,\frac{ \sigma^2}{\sum \left(x_i - \bar{x} \right)^2}\right)$ and $\hat{a} \sim N \left( a, \frac{\sigma^2}{n}\right)$
I then need to show that the covariance between $\hat{a}$ and $\hat{b}$ is $0$
but I am stuck evaluating $$E \left[ \hat{a} \hat{b} \right]=\frac{1}{\sum \left( x_i-\bar{x} \right)^2} E \left[\bar{y} \sum \left(x_i -\bar{x} \right) y_i \right] $$
Could you please help me here?
Thanks