Really fascinating question. What you want to show is that
$$\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{a+x-1}e^{-2y}}{\Gamma\left(a\right)x!}\text{ d}y = 1$$
Here's how I approached this problem. Let's isolate the $x$ and $y$ parts as much as possible:
$$\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{a-1}e^{-2y}}{\Gamma\left(a\right)}\left(\sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{x}}{x!}\right)\text{ d}y$$
I thought to myself, well, $y > 0$ and the $\displaystyle \sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{x}}{x!}$ part looks something like the CDF of a Poission random variable. But the probability mass function of a Poission random variable with mean $\lambda = y$ is
$$ p\left(y\right) = \dfrac{e^{-y}y^{x}}{x!}\text{,} \quad{} y > 0\text{.}$$
So this suggested to me that I should bring one of the $e^{-y}$ terms into the summation.
$$\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{a-1}e^{-y}}{\Gamma\left(a\right)}\left(\sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{e^{-y}y^{x}}{x!}\right)\text{ d}y$$
Since I've already established that the summation is summing over all probabilities for a Poisson-distributed random variable, it follows that $\displaystyle \sum\limits_{x=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{e^{-y}y^{x}}{x!} = 1$.
So all that remains is to show that
$$\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{y^{a-1}e^{-y}}{\Gamma\left(a\right)}\text{ d}y = 1\text{.}$$
However, this follows immediately since $\displaystyle f(y) = \dfrac{y^{a-1}e^{-y}}{\Gamma\left(a\right)}$ is the PDF of a Gamma distribution.