I have found this post:
Yes. The coefficient reflects the change in log odds for each increment of change in the ordinal predictor. This (very common) model specification assumes the the predictor has a linear impact across its increments. To test the assumption, you can compare a model in which you use the ordinal variable as a single predictor to one in which you discretize the responses and treat them as multiple predictors (as you would if the variable were nominal); if the latter model doesn't result in a significantly better fit, then treating each increment as having a linear effect is reasonable.
Could you please tell me where can find something published that supports this claim? I am working with data and I would like to use ordinal independent variables in logistic regression.