Let's $x$ be a random variable with a binomial distribution ($x \sim B(n,p)$). I know that the expected value of a binomial is $E(x) = n \cdot p $ but the inverse of a binomial?
- $E\big(\frac{1}{x}\big)$ = ???
EDIT
$Y \sim unknown$ and $X \sim B(n,p)$
$E\big(\frac{Y}{X}\big) = E(Y) \cdot E\big(\frac{1}{X}\big)$