In http://surveyanalysis.org/wiki/Multiple_Comparisons_(Post_Hoc_Testing) it states
For example, if we have a p-value of 0.05 and we conclude it is significant the probability of a false discovery is, by definition, 0.05.
My question: I always thought false discovery is Type I error, which is equal to the chosen significance levels in most tests. P-value is the value calculated from the sample. Indeed, Wikipedia states
The p-value should not be confused with the significance level $\alpha$ in the Neyman–Pearson approach or the Type I error rate [false positive rate]"
So why does the linked article claim that Type I error rate is given by the p-value?