I am doing a correlation analysis testing summated likert scales.
However, one of the correlation analysis shows an unsignificant
pearsons r (p = 0,068), BUT spearman's rho is 0,044. What should I
conclude from that?
You pretty much concluded that: Pearson's correlation did not show a significant association but Spearman's did. One uses the real values and one uses the ranks of the values, they don't necessarily agree all the time.
Between the two, Pearson's correlation is prone to outlier or skewed distribution and for that please check if the two variables are aligned with the assumptions. Also, you'll need to report the actual coefficients and sample size. It's meaningless just to focus solely on the p-values.
I know that likert scales are ordinal, but to run the correlation
analysis I am assuming interval scales.
Then may I ask why did you perform the Spearman's correlation?
I run regression analysis on the significant values, and the above
mentioned variable has an ANOVA with p-value of 0,136 meaning no
significant relationship between the DV and IV.
This is unclear to me. If you mean a simple linear regression using the same two variables you used in the correlation analysis, the p-value should be 0.068 (same as Pearson's correlation.) This part of the question is not directly related to the key issue, but if you can revise the question and clarify a bit, we may be able to better explain it.
Also, make sure to check the regression's assumption, particularly linearity and equal variance: Likert's scales tend to fail at these two.