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Im trying to calculate the mortality rates for males and females in two different disease groups (type 1 and type 2 diabetes).

In my primary analyses i forgot to use respective gender as the background population and instead used the whole populationen.

Now the thing is when i divide the background population in females and males for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes and use these reference populations (instead of the entire population) the incidence rates for type 1 changes dramatically while not even one decimal changes in type 2 mortality rates.

Is this even plausible?

Truly grateful for all the help i can get!

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't think the appropriate question is whether it's "plausible". It most definitely is plausible if that's what the calculations show. If you're asking whether you did the calculations correctly, I think we need more specific information about the output you're getting. As written, the question is too broad to answer correctly. $\endgroup$ – rocinante Aug 24 '14 at 20:51

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