Im trying to calculate the mortality rates for males and females in two different disease groups (type 1 and type 2 diabetes).
In my primary analyses i forgot to use respective gender as the background population and instead used the whole populationen.
Now the thing is when i divide the background population in females and males for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes and use these reference populations (instead of the entire population) the incidence rates for type 1 changes dramatically while not even one decimal changes in type 2 mortality rates.
Is this even plausible?
Truly grateful for all the help i can get!