In the video lectures from Harvard's Statistics 110:Probability course that can be found on iTunes and YouTube, I encountered this problem. I tried to summarize it here:
Suppose we are given a random two-card hand from a standard deck.
- What is the probability that both cards are aces given that we have at least one ace?
$$ P(both\ aces | have\ ace) = \frac{P(both\ aces, have\ ace)}{P(have\ ace)} $$
Since having at least one ace is implied if you have both aces, the intersection can be reduced to just $P(both\ aces)$
$$ P(both\ aces | have\ ace) = \frac{P(both\ aces)}{P(have\ ace)} $$
This is then just
$$ P(both\ aces | have\ ace) = \frac{4C2\ /\ 52C2}{1-48C2\ /\ 52C2}=\frac{1}{33} $$
- What is the probability that both cards are aces given that we have the ace of spades?
$$ P(both\ aces | have\ ace\ of\ spades)=\frac{P(both\ aces, have\ ace\ of\ spades)}{P(have\ ace\ of\ spades)} $$
$$ P(both\ aces | have\ ace\ of\ spades)=\frac{(3C1*1C1)\ /\ 52C2}{2!*\frac{51}{52}*\frac{1}{51}}=\frac{1}{17} $$
Now, somewhere along these examples I got lost...
The latter is obviously just the same as $\frac{3}{51}$, which makes a lot of sense (to me) that this would be the answer. If you are told that you have the ace of (say) spades, then you know that there are $3$ more aces and $51$ more cards.
But in the former example, the math seems fine (and I believe the lecturer wouldn't give this example if it was incorrect...), but I can't wrap my head around this.
How do I get some intuition for this problem?
[self-study]
tag & read its wiki. $\endgroup$