# Interpreting odds ratio of an ordinal regression when independent variables are negative percentages

I'm trying to express the results of an ordinal regression with a certain "perspective", and I'm confused.

My dependent variable is an ordinal representing the progression in a scale of negative outcome (e.g. 0 = ok, 1 = bad outcome, 2 = very bad outcome).

My independent variables are negative percentages that represent the percentual change in a measure between two time points (i.e. +X% if there was an increase, -Y% if the measure decreased).

I have the following ORs:

Percentual change in var A: 0.895 (95% CI: 0.801; 0.988)
Percentual change in var B: 0.870 (95% CI: 0.559; 1.337)
Other variable:             1.007 (95% CI: 0.995; 1.019)
Age:                        0.970 (95% CI: 0.895; 1.045)


I am interpreting these ORs as follows:

Percentual change in var B, Other variable, and age have their CIs touching 1; this means that I cannot refute the hypothesis that they have no effect on $Bad_Outcome. Percentual change in var A has a significant effect on$Bad_outcome (statistically speaking). The 0.895 OR means that an increase in var a (e.g. a change from, say, -7% to -6%) is associated with an odds 0.895 times the odds of passing from an ok outcome (0) to a bad outcome (1), or from a bad outcome (1) to a very bad outcome (2) (I am not sure if this is correct).

Given that my previous interpretation is correct, how can I "translate" this results taking as reference the decrease in the percentual change in var A?

In plain English: I'd like to express the results as the odds of having a worse outcome (from ok to bad, and from bad to very bad) when var A decreases (say, from -6% to -7%), but I'm confused by this "reversal of perspective", and I'm not sure how to "convert" the OR. I was thinking of 1/OR, but I'm really uncertain.