I'm working on an analysis with another person. First we did a logistic regression with study group and variable X. They were both significant. Then we added the interaction between study group and X only the study group and the interaction were significant. Actually, there are 3 groups and only one of the groups and one of the group*X interactions is significant.
I am having a hard time to convince this person that we should not present the odds ratios for X from the first analysis that do not account for this interaction. This person thinks that we can show the results of the first analysis AND then the second analysis. I think this is misleading and will confuse people.
I am not the best at explaining things (as you can tell), so any help with how to argue my point would be appreciated.