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I am working with a relatively large data set with 2K columns and many variables can be grouped together (a logistic regression). So I am thinking can I use fitted value from regression on subset of features as independent variable?.

For example Instead of: Y ~ X1 + X2 + X3 + Z1 + Z2 + Z3

Can I use Y ~ X1 + X2 + X3 and Y ~ Z1 + Z2 + Z3

then use the fitted value Y1 and Y2 from those two models to do: Y ~ Y1 + Y2

Please correct me if there is any issue with this method. Thanks!

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  • $\begingroup$ What are Y1 and Y2? $\endgroup$
    – James
    Sep 18, 2014 at 20:25
  • $\begingroup$ Good point! My mistake, Y1 and Y2 should be the fitted value of each sub-model $\endgroup$
    – Yoki
    Sep 18, 2014 at 20:52
  • $\begingroup$ If the X's and Z's are independent, this might work. If there's dependence, this might not work. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Sep 19, 2014 at 0:00

1 Answer 1

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I think what you are saying is that you have two types of columns... type 1 and type 2. You have a target variable $y$ to estimate. What you are suggesting to do is to estimate $y_1$ with the type 1 columns, then $y_2$ with the type 2 columns, and finally estimate $y$ as a function of $\hat y_1$ and $\hat y_2$.

Although this is certainly possible, you don't indicate why would you be interested in doing this. If you want to do dimensionality reduction, I would recommend you to do PCA instead, and then regress $y$ into the principal components.

The problem of your approach is that you are introducing unnecessary noise for the estimation of the parameters.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the answer! One follow up question if you don't mind: What is the difference between using PCA, LDA and simply regression? I tried both LDA and regression and found that the regression result has higher correlation with response variable. $\endgroup$
    – Yoki
    Sep 19, 2014 at 13:53

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