Suppose I have a frequency distribution of some process of
f_n(x) that is based on
n samples, with
n < N. I want to know the frequency distribution
N samples. The process was in
n timesteps, and what I want to do is use the same distribution for a larger number of timesteps. The timesteps for both timeseries are the same.
Is it correct to just scale
f_n by a factor
N/n, so that I get
f_N(x) = N/n f_n(x)
What is the reasoning behind it?