I was looking over the solution to this question on SO and it got me thinking about computing probabilities for a Gaussian mixture model.
Let's assume you've fit some Gaussian mixture model so that it results in a mixture of three normals:
\begin{equation} X_1 \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_1,\sigma_{1}^{2}), \quad X_2 \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_2,\sigma_{2}^{2}), \quad X_3 \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_3,\sigma_3^2) \end{equation} with respective weights $\lambda_1, \lambda_2$, and $\lambda_3$. From here on out, take $\mathbf{X}=[X_1,X_2,X_3]$ and $\mathbf{\lambda}=[\lambda_1,\lambda_2,\lambda_3]$.
Typically, to find the probability that this model is less than some value $x$, we find \begin{equation} \mathbf{P}(\mathbf{\lambda}\mathbf{X}^T\leq x) = \sum_{i=1}^{3} \lambda_i \mathbf{P}(X_i\leq x) \end{equation}
It's possible that I've made a coding error, but it seems that the probability obtained from the above formula is different from the probability obtained if we compute the probability in a different way: \begin{equation} \mathbf{P}(\mathbf{\lambda}\mathbf{X}^T\leq x)=\mathbf{P}(Y\leq x) \end{equation} where $Y\sim\mathcal{N}(\mathbf{\lambda}\mathbf{\mu}^T,\sum_{i=1}^{3} \lambda_{i}^{2}\sigma_{i}^{2})$ with $\mathbf{\mu}=[\mu_1,\mu_2,\mu_3]$.
If it's a coding error, please just leave a comment and I will delete this question.