# Would a one-tailed t-test technically be considered Bayesian?

I'm just curious whether the expectation implied from a one-tailed test would somehow be considered a prior, and whether this is enough for it to be in the purview of Bayesian statistics.

† That is $t$ (or $-t$) rather than $|t|$.
• I think there is a matching prior. Using this prior, rejecting the test when $\pi(H_0 | x)<\alpha$ should be equivalent to the $t$-test with significance level $\alpha$. – Stéphane Laurent Jan 5 '15 at 13:05