The following is an excerpt from an article about gender bias :
Overall, 34 per cent of respondents readily admitted that their family preferred having more boys. Given the sensitive nature of this question, this number is a lower bound since some people will undoubtedly give socially desirable responses.
In order to estimate the true levels of son preference, we ran a “list experiment” which protects the anonymity of the survey responses. The respondents were randomly divided into two groups, given a list of statements, and then asked the number of statements with which they agreed. Only half of respondents were given a statement about son preference, and therefore, we were able to estimate the share of respondents who agreed to the sensitive statement by comparing the means of the two respondent groups. Using this technique, we found that once granted the cloak of anonymity, 48 per cent of respondents have a preference for sons in their family.
Is this technique valid? If so, how exactly does it work? This the way I understand it (possibly wrong):
Since the respondents were randomly divided into 2 groups, it can be expected that the distribution of answers from both the groups to be identical if both the groups are given exactly the same survey. Now, say one group is given a list of 10 statements and the other is given a list of 11 statements, the extra statements being the one about gender preference. There will be a shift in the distribution and the difference gives us the percentage of people with a preference. Is my interpretation correct? If so, how is the exact percentage arrived at?