I had a question yesterday that I got a bunch of great responses on. I have, hopefully, a quicker question here.
There is a debate in the literature regarding reporting means vs medians in a Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney test. See this and also this.
I would like to report means in my table, since I only have four possible values (0 through 3), rendering medians less effective as the differences are not pronounced. If I do report means in the table, would I just put an asterisk saying that means are reported for the Mann-Whitney test because the medians don't show the differences effectively? I feel like I need to explain why I used means and not medians to describe my ordinal data and show significance (even though a Mann-Whitney is comparing the distributions and not the medians, as some think).
Are there are any references out there that show this as a precedent? As always, advice/help is greatly appreciated!