My question directly relates to one that has already been answered - here: Expected Value and Variance of Estimation of Slope Parameter $\beta_1$ in Simple Linear Regression
However, there is an initial step in the derivation which I don't understand which the proof and the textbook I am reading also just assumes.
The equation for $\hat{\beta_1}$ as a result from the normal equations is:
$\hat{\beta_1}=\sum_i(x_i−\bar{x})(Y_i−\bar{Y})/\sum_i(x_i−\bar{x})^2$
However, when we get to deriving the variance of $\hat{\beta_1}$ we get to this expression (written better on the previous question above):
$\hat{β}_1=\sum_i(x_i−\bar{x})(Y_i−\bar{Y})/\sum_i(x_i−\bar{x})^2=\sum_i(x_i−\bar{x})Y_i/S_{xx}$
My main question is what happened to the $\bar{Y}$ in the numerator? What is happening here?