Hello can anyone kindly guide me about the correct way to interpret adjusted odds ratios.
I am working on a project (in SPSS) on women's autonomy and domestic violence. When I take the (simple) odds ratios then women's non-participation in health decisions, mobility and household decisions is significantly related to experiencing domestic violence. (women's age, education level and wealth quintile are also significantly related to domestic violence)
Yet, when I control for women's age, education level and wealth quintile, only the non participation in household decisions is now significantly related to experiencing domestic violence. How do I interpret the change in results since the other two types of decision are now no longer significantly related to experiencing domestic violence?