Two vectors $\mathbf{u}, \mathbf{v}$ are said to be orthogonal iff
$$ \langle \mathbf{u}, \mathbf{v} \rangle = 0 $$
If you do this inner product $r$ times with $\mathbf{v}$ being column 1, and $\mathbf{u}$ being columns $2, ..., r+1 $ respectively, you just have to add the column elements.
The orthogonality follows from the properties of the arithmetic mean. If you recall, its second property is that the sum of the deviations of the sample from the mean is zero.
Proof
Let $\mathbf{x} = (x_1, \dots, x_n)'$ be the observed sample of the r.v. $X$ and let $\bar{x} = n^{-1} \mathbf{x}'\boldsymbol 1$ be the sample mean. Then
$$ \sum_{i=1}^n (x_i - \bar{x}) = n \bar{x} - n \bar{x} = 0$$
In your case you just have samples $\mathbf{x}_1 = (x_{11}, \dots, x_{n1})', \dots, \mathbf{x}_r = (x_{1r}, \dots, x_{nr})'$ and the corresponding means are $\bar{x}_1, \dots, \bar{x}_r $. You can apply the same property taking care of adding the sample subscript:
$$ \sum_{i=1}^n (x_{ij} - \bar{x}_j) = n \bar{x}_j - n \bar{x}_j = 0 \qquad j=1,\dots, r.$$
I'll change the notation of your question to make it clearer. Hope this will be useful!