A mathematical demonstration of the relationship between the two is here: Pearson's correlation and least squares regression analysis.
I am not sure if there is a geometric or any other intuition that can be offered apart from the math but if I can think of one I will update this answer.
Update: Geometric Intuition
Here is a geometric intuition I came up with. Suppose that you have two variables $x$ and $y$ which are mean centered. (Assuming mean centered lets us ignore the intercept which simplifies the geometrical intuition a bit.) Let us first consider the geometry of linear regression. In linear regression, we model $y$ as follows:
$y = x\ \beta + \epsilon$.
Consider the situation when we have two observations from the above data generating process given by the pairs ($y_1,y_2$) and ($x_1,x_2$). We can view them as vectors in two-dimensional space as shown in the figure below:
alt text http://a.imageshack.us/img202/669/linearregression1.png
Thus, in terms of the above geometry, our goal is to find a $\beta$ such that the vector $x\ \beta$ is the closest possible to the vector $y$. Note that different choices of $\beta$ scale $x$ appropriately. Let $\hat{\beta}$ be the value of $\beta$ that is our best possible approximation of $y$ and denote $\hat{y} = x\ \hat{\beta}$. Thus,
$y = \hat{y} + \hat{\epsilon}$
From a geometrical perspective we have three vectors. $y$, $\hat{y}$ and $\hat{\epsilon}$. A little thought suggests that we must choose $\hat{\beta}$ such that three vectors look like the one below:
alt text http://a.imageshack.us/img19/9524/intuitionlinearregressi.png
In other words, we need to choose $\beta$ such that the angle between $x\ \beta$ and $\hat{\epsilon}$ is 900.
So, how much variation in $y$ have we explained with this projection of $y$ onto the vector $x$. Since the data is mean centered the variance in $y$ is equals ($y_1^2+y_2^2$) which is the square of the distance between the point represented by the point $y$ and the origin. The variation in $\hat{y}$ is similarly the distance from the point $\hat{y}$ and the origin and so on.
By the Pythagorean theorem, we have:
$y^2 = \hat{y}^2 + \hat{\epsilon}^2$
Therefore, the proportion of the variance explained by $x$ is $\frac{\hat{y}^2}{y^2}$. Notice also that $cos(\theta) = \frac{\hat{y}}{y}$. and the wiki tells us that the geometrical interpretation of correlation is that correlation equals the cosine of the angle between the mean-centered vectors.
Therefore, we have the required relationship:
(Correlation)2 = Proportion of variation in $y$ explained by $x$.
Hope that helps.