Ive looked over a few of the posts here on regression coefficients and partial regression coefficients but haven't seen an answer to this question, which maybe easily inferred from the other answers but being new to all of this I haven't been able to figure it out.
Basically, lets say you run a linear regression with a number of IV's and you are interested in two of them - X1 and X2.
X1 standardized beta = -.338 and partial r = -.314
X2 standardized beta = .452 and partial r = .238
Is this possible? Can the beta for X2 be larger than the beta for X1 but the reverse be true of their partial r's? If so, why?