Suppose that virus transmission in 500 acts of intercourse are mutually independent events and that the probability of transmission in any one act is $\frac{1}{500}$. What is the probability of infection?
So I do know that one way to solve this is to find the probability of complement of the event we are trying to solve. Letting $C_1,C_2,C_3...C_{500}$ denote the events that a virus does not occur during encounters 1,2,....500. The probability of no infection is:
$$P(C_1\cap C_2 \cap \cdots\cap C_{500}) = (1 - (\frac{1}{500}))^{500} = 0.37$$
then to find the probability of infection I would just do : $1 - 0.37 = 0.63$
but my question is how would I find the probability not using the complement? I would have thought since the events are independent and each with probability of $\frac{1}{500}$ that if I multiplied each independent event I could obtain the value, but that is not the case. What am I forgetting to consider if I wanted to calculate this way? I'm asking more so to have a fuller understanding of both sides of the coin.
Edit: I think I may have figured out what I'm missing in my thinking. In the case of trying to figure out the probability of infection I have to take into account that infection could occur on the first transmission, or the second, or the third,...etc. Also transmission could occur on every interaction or on a few interactions but not all. So in each of these scenarios I would encounter some sort of combination of probabilities like $(\frac{499}{500})(\frac{499}{500})(\frac{1}{500})(\frac{499}{500}) \cdots (\frac{1}{500})$ as an example of one possible combination.