4
$\begingroup$

I would like to solve what seems to be a simple question on maximum likelihood which I believe can be solved by differentiation of the likelihood function.

$X_1,X_2,X_3,\ldots,X_{n_1}$ are independent Poisson random variables, each with mean $\lambda\alpha$ and $Y_1,Y_2,Y_3,\ldots,Y_{n_2}$ are independent Poisson random variables, each with mean $\lambda\alpha^2$. $\lambda$ is known. How can I find the maximum likelihood estimator of $\alpha$?

$$f(x) = \frac{e^{-\lambda\alpha}(\lambda\alpha)^x}{x!}$$ $$f(y) = \frac{e^{-\lambda\alpha^2}(\lambda\alpha^2)^y}{y!}$$

I find the likelihood function has this form $$\frac{e^{-n_1\lambda\alpha}e^{-n_2\lambda\alpha^2}(\lambda\alpha)^{\sum x}(\lambda\alpha^2)^{\sum y}}{\prod x! \prod y! }$$

and the log likelihood

$$-n_1\lambda\alpha-n_2\lambda\alpha^2 + \sum x \log(\lambda\alpha) + \sum{y}\log (\lambda\alpha^2) - \log\prod x!-\log \prod y!$$

After differentiation I get

$$-n_1\lambda - 2n_2\lambda\alpha + \frac{\sum{x}}{\alpha} + \frac{2\sum{y}}{\alpha}$$

setting this to zero yields an equation in $\alpha$ which usually is quite simple to solve but in this case I get

$$2\sum{y} + \sum{x} = n_1\lambda\alpha + 2n_2\lambda\alpha^2.$$

This doesn't seem right to me!

$\endgroup$
5
  • $\begingroup$ Why doesn't that seem right? $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented May 5, 2015 at 10:54
  • $\begingroup$ It doesn't seem right because I can't solve it for $\alpha$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 5, 2015 at 11:17
  • $\begingroup$ Its a quadratic equation for $\alpha$ so you should be able to solve it? $\endgroup$ Commented May 5, 2015 at 12:10
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ As kjetil says, it's simply a quadratic. We know how to solve quadratics. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented May 5, 2015 at 12:36
  • $\begingroup$ There are good reasons why it is considered abominable notation to write $f(x)$ and $f(y)$ while intending the two $f$s to refer to two different functions. What, for example, is $f(3)$? Does it mean $f_X(3) = \Pr(X=3)$ or $f_Y(3) = \Pr(Y=3)$? And not that the two subscripts here are not $x$ and $y$ but instead are $X$ and $Y. \qquad$ $\endgroup$ Commented May 7, 2019 at 18:47

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

It is implied the $X_i$ are independent of the $Y_j.$ Therefore the usual maximum likelihood equations apply to the $X_i$ and the $Y_j$ separately, with solutions

$$\begin{cases} \hat\lambda \hat \alpha\ n_1 &= \sum_{i=1}^{n_1}X_i &=x \\ \hat\lambda \hat \alpha^2n_2 &=\sum_{j=1}^{n_2}X_i &=y \end{cases}$$

yielding

$$\hat\alpha = \frac{y/n_2}{x/n_1}\tag{*}$$

provided $x \ne 0;$ that is, assuming at least one $X$ event was observed. Note that $\lambda$ needn't be known and that the equation for $\hat\alpha$ really reduces to a linear one, not a quadratic one.


Simulation bears out the correctness of this solution. Since MLE is an asymptotic procedure, we don't want to test the results for small $n_1,n_2.$ This example of applying $(*)$ to 100,000 independent datasets uses $n_1=24, n_2=9$ with $\alpha=\pi$ (plotted as a gray vertical line) and $\lambda=10.$ The average estimate is plotted as a red vertical line: that the two vertical lines are nearly coincident indicates any bias is low.

Histogram

This is the R code used to produce the figure. NB In this simulation, no individual estimate $\hat \alpha$ was undefined. When the expectation of $x$ (namely, $\lambda \alpha n_1$) is small, the values of $x$ in some simulations can be zero.

n <- c(24, 9)
n.sim <- 1e5
lambda <- 10
alpha <- pi
set.seed(17)

xy <- matrix(rpois(sum(n)*n.sim, rep(c(lambda*alpha, lambda*alpha^2), n)), ncol=n.sim)
x <- colSums(xy[1:n[1], ])
y <- colSums(xy[-(1:n[1]), ])

alpha.hat <- y/n[2] / (x/n[1])
alpha.hat <- alpha.hat[!is.infinite(alpha.hat)]
hist(alpha.hat, xlab=expression(hat(alpha)), ylab="", cex.lab=1.5, 
     main="Histogram of Simulated Estimates")
abline(v=alpha, col="Gray", lwd=2)
abline(v=mean(alpha.hat), col="Red", lwd=2)
$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

Let \begin{align} \mu & = \lambda\alpha, \\ \nu & = \lambda\alpha^2. \end{align} Then $$ \tag 1 \begin{align} \alpha & = \nu/\mu, \\[4pt] \lambda & = \mu^2/\nu. \end{align} $$

Find the MLEs of $\mu$ and $\nu$ by the usual method.

Then, by equivariance of MLEs, you can just use $(1)$ to find the MLEs of $\alpha$ and $\lambda.$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.