I am considering the model :
$$ \mathbf{x} = \mathbf{A}\mathbf{s} $$
where $\mathbf A \in \mathcal{M}_{n,p}(\mathbb{R})$ and $\mathbf s \in \mathbb{R}^{p}$ such that the entries of $\mathbf s$ are i.i.d. with $\text{Laplace}(1/2)$ distribution. In other words:
$$ p(\mathbf{s}) = \prod \limits_{i=1}^{p} \frac{1}{2} \, \exp\left( -\frac{1}{2}\vert s_{i} \vert \right) = \frac{1}{2^{p}} \, \exp \left( -\frac{1}{2} \Vert \mathbf{s} \Vert_{1} \right). $$
I am wondering whether this is identifiable. Because if I replace $\mathbf{A}$ with $-\mathbf{A}$ and $\mathbf{s}$ with $-\mathbf{s}$, I will obtain the same observations $\mathbf{x}$ and the components of $-\mathbf{s}$ are still i.i.d. with $\text{Laplace}(1/2)$ distribution. Am I right? How can I make this model identifiable? Shall I choose another distribution instead of the Laplace distribution?