Is it 'normal' to have two Pearson correlation coefficients which are statistically significant on their own but not when compared with each other.
- r=.9083 (n=45) for females who buy ice-cream and yoghurt
- r=.8382 (n=60) for males who buy ice-crean and yoghurt
(The above correlation is between buying ice-cream and buying yoghurt for the two groups)
Based on the above, my interpretation is that both males and females who buy more ice-cream also tend to buy more yoghurt but there is no difference whether one group buys more or less than the other group.