Since a fixed-effects meta-analysis assumes that the studies are all estimating the same underlying effect, when the Cochrane RevMan software reports a Q and $I^2$ statistic with a fixed-effects analysis what exactly are they reporting? The manual says:
Note that a random-effects model does not ‘take account’ of the heterogeneity, in the sense that it is no longer an issue (I am not sure if this is relevant!).
Are these numbers just what you would get with the data if you were to do a random-effects analysis? But then would not the weighting of the studies be different from that in the fixed-effects analysis making it potentially misleading with the fixed-effects forest plot?