2
$\begingroup$

A simple method to generate correlated lognormal variables $X_i$ that obey a covariance matrix $C_{\mathrm{ln}}$ with elements $c_{\mathrm{ln}}^{ij}$ is to first compute the covariance matrix $C_{\mathrm{g}}$ for the associated Gaussian variables $\ln(X_i)$, where the elements $c_{\mathrm{g}}^{ij}$ of $C_{\mathrm{g}}$ are given by:

$c_{\mathrm{g}}^{ij} = \ln \left(\frac{c_{\mathrm{ln}}^{ij}}{\langle X_i\rangle\langle X_j\rangle}+1\right)$,

where $\langle X_i \rangle$ is the mean of $X_i$. Then, we use $C_{\mathrm{g}}$ to generate correlated Gaussian variables that are later exponentiated to return $X_i$.

My question is: why some positive-definite $C_{\mathrm{ln}}$ result in non-positive-definite $C_{\mathrm{g}}$? For a $2\times2$ covariance matrix the answer is here, but even when such restrictions are satisfied the resulting $C_{\mathrm{g}}$ might still be non-positive-definite for $N\times N$ matrices with $N>2$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ can you provide a reference for this property about the covariance matrix? and explicit the symbol $<X_i>$? $\endgroup$
    – Xi'an
    Commented Jul 30, 2015 at 17:04
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Xi'an See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…. The angle brackets are a notation used by physicists to denote expectations. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jul 30, 2015 at 20:47
  • $\begingroup$ @Xi'an I change the text, now it explains $\langle X_i \rangle$. One reference for the equation relating $c_{\mathrm{g}}^{ij}$ and $c_{\mathrm{ln}}^{ij}$ is Appendix B of Chiang et al. 2013 $\endgroup$
    – hsxavier
    Commented Aug 2, 2015 at 8:44

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

Not all positive-definite $C_{ln}$ give valid $C_g$ because some covariance matrices are impossible to reach in this setup, because of the non-linearity between the original random variable and the variable of interest.

For example, if you considered the following problem: $X_1$ and $X_2$ and gaussian random variables of mean 0, possibly correlated, and $Y_1 = X_1$ and $Y_2 = (X_2)^2$ Then $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ would always be uncorrelated, no matter the original correlation between $X_1$ and $X_2$

A similar phenomenon is taking place for the log-normal tuning-curves. Because you go through the exponential non-linearity, some correlation values become impossible to reach

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.