I have looked at the other similar questions on here, but I can't seem to understand whether power is still an issue for unequal sample sizes with the homogeneity of variance being met.
Yuen (1974) and Zimmerman (1987) seem to suggest that it's only an issue when the larger sample has the smaller variance. Is this correct? Or do I have a reduced power despite having equal variances?
I'm currently responding to reviewers and it would be good to understand this a bit better and have a reference to support my point.