Does a proper prior lead always a proper posterior?

I cannot check whether the posterior is proper, so I was wondering if this assumption is always satisfied .

  • $\begingroup$ Related: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/87321 And Tom Minka's answer there is an answer to this question. $\endgroup$ – Juho Kokkala Sep 22 '15 at 9:12
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for your help, but Tom Minka said that if data is continuos even if the prior is proper, the posterior may be improper. What if data is discrete? $\endgroup$ – sciury Sep 22 '15 at 10:20

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