Suppose that $\theta \in \Theta=\{0,1\}$ such that $P(\theta = 0) = 0.1$. Let $X$ be a r.v such that, given $\theta=0$, $X \sim N(50,1)$ and given $\theta = 1$, $X \sim N(52,1)$. Show that the posteriori probability of $\theta=0$ is greater than the posteriori of $\theta = 1$ if and only if $$x < 51 - \frac{3}{2} \log(9)$$
My attempt Using bayes theorem
$$P(\theta = \theta|X)=\frac{P(X|\theta=\theta) P(\theta)}{\sum_\Theta P(X|\theta=\theta) P(\theta)}$$
We note that the denominator is common for both values of theta. Then we need to compare $$P(X|\theta=0) P(\theta=0) \text{ and } P(X|\theta=1) P(\theta=1)$$
$\Rightarrow P(X|\theta=0) P(\theta=0) > P(X|\theta=1) P(\theta=1) \iff 0.1 \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} e^{\frac{-(x-50)^2}{2}} > 0.9 \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} e^{\frac{-(x-52)^2}{2}}$
$\Rightarrow \frac{-(x-50)^2}{2} > \log(9) + \frac{-(x-52)^2}{2} \iff x^2 - 100x + 2500 < x^2 - 104x + 2704 - 2 \log(9) \iff x < 51 - \frac{1}{2} \log(9)$
I wonder if I am missing something, because I couldn't find out from where this 3 camed from.
Thanks!