I am wondering why residuals not independent of one another in a linear regression

  • $\begingroup$ I don't have a proper answer, but I hope you know that your username links directly to your facebook profile, and anyone can just copy paste that number to get to your timeline. I would change that if I were you, unless you don't care. $\endgroup$ – Chris C Nov 12 '15 at 3:37
  • $\begingroup$ The error term in the model does specify that the errors must be iid. However, the actual residuals from a data set with a fitted equation are not fully independent as their mean must always be zero. $\endgroup$ – J Taylor Nov 12 '15 at 4:06
  • $\begingroup$ I don't understand your question. Could elaborate with some more context? An example maybe and where you heard this from? $\endgroup$ – Zachary Blumenfeld Nov 12 '15 at 5:08
  • $\begingroup$ this is a True or False question we got and we only have the answer but we do not have an explanation and I am curious of why $\endgroup$ – lll Nov 12 '15 at 5:26

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