In Elements of Statistical Learning, they state on p. 11 that all vectors are column vectors and start developing the least squares idea.
So if we have $$\mathbf{X} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ X_1 \\ X_2 \\ \vdots \\ X_p\end{bmatrix}$$ and $$\hat{\boldsymbol{\beta}} = \begin{bmatrix} \hat{\beta}_0 \\ \hat{\beta}_1 \\ \vdots \\ \hat{\beta}_p \end{bmatrix}\text{,}$$ take $$\hat{Y} = \mathbf{X}^{T}\hat{\boldsymbol{\beta}} = \langle \mathbf{X}, \hat{\boldsymbol{\beta}} \rangle\text{.}$$ So $\hat{Y} \in \mathbb{R}^1$ because $\mathbf{X}^{T} \in M_{1 \times p}(\mathbb{R})$ and $\boldsymbol{\beta} \in M_{p \times 1}(\mathbb{R})$. Fine.
Now they say:
... in general $\hat{Y}$ can be a $K$-vector, in which case $\beta$ (I think this is a typo - they should probably have $\hat{\beta}$ instead) would be a $p \times K$ matrix of coefficients.
Well, here's the problem. If $\mathbf{X}^{T} \in M_{1 \times p}(\mathbb{R})$ and $\hat{\beta} \in M_{p \times K}(\mathbb{R})$, wouldn't $\mathbf{X}^{T}\hat{\beta}$ give a row vector for $\mathbf{Y}$ (dimensions $1 \times K$)?