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I can't seem to wrap my head around the following proof.

I want to show that the linear kernel is a kernel because its Gram matrix is positive semi-definite.

There is plenty of information on the internet, but I don't understand the last step:
linear kernel: $k(x,x')=<x,x>=\sum_{a=0}^N x_ax_a'$
$$\sum_{i,j} c_i c_j k(x_i,x_j) \ge 0$$
$$\sum_{i,j} c_i c_j k(x_i,x_j) = \sum_{i,j} c_i c_j <x_i,x_j> =\sum_{i,j} c_i c_j \sum_{a=0}^N x_ax_a'=\sum_{i,j} \sum_{a=0}^N c_i x_ac_jx_a' $$ So far so good. But now, why can I say that this is equal to: $$||\sum_{i} \sum_{a=0}^N c_i x_a||^2 \ge 0$$ The $\ge$ is clear just why is the formula transformed in that way?

A similar approach for the dot-product is shown here: click
Thanks a lot!

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3 Answers 3

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First, your definition should be corrected as $$k(x, x') = \langle x, x\color{red}{'}\rangle = \sum_{a = 1}^N x_a x_a'. $$ The problem of your derivation is that you didn't distinguish $x_i = (x_{i,1}, \ldots, x_{i,N})^T$ and $x_j = (x_{j, 1}, \ldots, x_{j, N})^T$ very clearly. Let's say you have $p$ vectors $\{x_1, \ldots, x_p\}$ under consideration. It follows that (what you provided was actually incorrect): \begin{align} & \sum_{i, j} c_i c_j k(x_i, x_j) \\ = & \sum_{i = 1}^p \sum_{j = 1}^p c_i c_j \sum_{a = 1}^N x_{i,a}x_{j, a} \\ = & \sum_{i = 1}^p \sum_{j = 1}^p \sum_{a = 1}^N c_i x_{i,a} c_j x_{j, a} \\ = & \sum_{a = 1}^N \left(\sum_{i = 1}^p c_i x_{i, a}\right) \left(\sum_{j = 1}^p c_j x_{j, a}\right) \qquad \text{ change the order of summation}\\ = & \sum_{a = 1}^N \left(\sum_{i = 1}^p c_i x_{i, a}\right)^2 \geq 0. \qquad i, j \text{ are just dummy indices} \end{align}

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  • $\begingroup$ Hi thanks for your answer, for me, the last step is not really obvious because $x_i$ and $x_j$ can be different for example $(1, 2, 3)$ and $(-5, 8, 9)$ and then we can't just square them. $\endgroup$
    – flow
    May 29, 2018 at 13:45
  • $\begingroup$ @flow Both $i$ and $j$ belong to the set $\{1, 2, \ldots, p\}$. The example you gave doesn't meet this condition. To give you a clearer picture, what we did here is similar to write the sum $1 + 2 + 3$ as $\sum_{i = 1}^3 i$ or $\sum_{j = 1}^3 j$. $\endgroup$
    – Zhanxiong
    May 29, 2018 at 14:19
  • $\begingroup$ Ok yes $i$ and $j$ belonging to the same set but these are the indices can I be sure that both $x$ are the same because you mentioned above we have $x$ and $x^{\prime}$, because if then I don't understand why we need this whole proof then if would be obvious in the beginning because, $c_i$ and $c_j$ are above $1$ in my definition. $\endgroup$
    – flow
    May 29, 2018 at 14:39
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If you don't mind matrix notation, let $X$ be the $n \times p$ matrix of observations. Each of the $p$ vectors is a column of $X$. Then the kernel condition is:

$$ c'(X'X)c $$ for an arbitrary vector $c$ of length $p$.

$$ c'(X'X)c = (Xc)'Xc$$

Recall that $Xc$ is an $n \times 1$ vector, say $(u_1, u_2, \ldots, u_N)$, and the RHS of the previous equation is:

$$ \sum_{i=1}^N u_i^2 \geq 0 $$

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Your goal was to show that it is positive semidefinite, and the square of a real number is non-negative.

The first one uses an abbreviated notation for the double sum over $i$ and $j$, but they are dummy variables over the same interval, so we can remove one of these and square what we have left (noting that the $c_i$ are scalars and can be rearranged).

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  • $\begingroup$ Sure! But why is the last statement equal to the previous one? After all, I'm saying that $\sum c_jx_a'$ is equal to $\sum c_ix_a$ $\endgroup$
    – Dahlai
    Nov 20, 2015 at 21:55
  • $\begingroup$ This is a little brief for what we typically want from an answer here. Given that the OP is still confused, can you expand this a little? $\endgroup$ Nov 20, 2015 at 22:11
  • $\begingroup$ I'm on a phone so its hard to type LaTeX, but "the first one" refers to the penultimate equation (RHS of the last bit that was "so far so good". $\endgroup$ Nov 20, 2015 at 22:19

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