This is the autocorrelation case.


where $u_{t}=\rho u_{t-1}+e_{t},$ $e_{t}$ is iid

From this autocorrelated disturbances,

I might be able to say

$y_{t}=\gamma y_{t-1}+w_{t}$, i.e., ordinal AR(1) model

Is this right?


Yes ....

If you have

yt=XtB+ut where ut=ρut−1+et, et is iid

and you clear fractions then you have a model of the form

y(t)= γy(t−1) + X_{t}-[1-γ]X_{t-1} + e_t$, and $e_t$ is iid.

where $w_t= X_{t}-[1-γ]X_{t-1} + e_t$, and $e_t$ is iid.

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  • $\begingroup$ This is being automatically flagged as low quality, probably because it is so short. Could you expand it a little? $\endgroup$ – gung - Reinstate Monica Dec 3 '15 at 14:43
  • $\begingroup$ This does not look like an AR(1) model to me; should it? $\endgroup$ – Richard Hardy Dec 3 '15 at 18:07
  • $\begingroup$ No ....it should not $\endgroup$ – IrishStat Dec 3 '15 at 21:00
  • $\begingroup$ So why is your answer a "yes"? $\endgroup$ – Richard Hardy Dec 3 '15 at 22:20
  • $\begingroup$ YES if you consider w(t) to be not iid $\endgroup$ – IrishStat Dec 3 '15 at 23:30

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