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I am always a bit surprised to see psychological adverts for participating in experimental studies. For sure, people who respond to these adverts are not randomly sampled and therefore are a self-selected population.

Because is it known that randomisation solve the self-selection problem, I was wondering if randomisation of a non-random sample actually changed anything.

What do you think ? And also, what should we make of all these psychological experiments based on heavily self-selected sample ?

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Randomization in a non-random sample can still show an effect is not reasonably explained by random variation.

For example imagine we have a population with two unrecognized subgroups (with somewhat different characteristics*) of roughly equal size, but your sample is non-random, giving an 80/20 split. Let's imagine 2 treatment groups of equal size. Randomization (at least with decent sample sizes) will tend to give close to that 80/20 split in each group, so that treatment effects are due to the treatment, rather than unequal allocation of the heterogeneous groups to the treatments.

* leading to different baseline means, say

The problem comes when you want to extend the inference to some target population other than what your sample is representative of (the self-selectors); this requires assumptions/an argument for which you may have no evidence (such as assuming that say the treatment differences will be consistent for all subsets of the population).

For a similar situation, imagine testing a hypertension drug only on men, compared to a standard treatment and placebo. Assume the men are properly randomized to treatment group. A treatment effect will be real in the sense that it really does describe an effect in men. The difficulty will come when trying to extend that inference to women.

So if they're properly conducted and randomized apart from the recruitment, an observed significant effect will be what it seems, but it will apply to what you actually sampled, not necessarily what your desired target was -- crossing the gap between the two may require careful argument; such argument is often absent.

When I was a student it was quite common for psychology experiments to be conducted on psychology students, who were expected to volunteer for a certain number of hours of such experiments (this may still be the case but I don't have regular contact with psychologists who do experiments any more). With randomization to treatment, the inferences may have been valid (depending on what was done) but would apply to the local population of self-selected psychology undergraduates (in that they generally choose which experiments to sign up for), who are very far from a random sample of the broader population.

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  • $\begingroup$ Recruiting poor undergrads is still the practice. That it is expected of a psych student to participate in such studies is a terrible breach of research integrity, IMO. $\endgroup$
    – StasK
    Dec 14, 2015 at 15:07
  • $\begingroup$ @StasK: Why? I used to find them rather interesting, & I'd imagine participating in them would give a useful perspective to psychology students. $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2015 at 15:24
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    $\begingroup$ Yup, the "intro psych pool" model is still alive and well. @StasK, to make it a little less coercive, the students are only asked to participate in a few experiments and they can choose which ones. I think we also have some way for the students to opt out of the entire thing. $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2015 at 15:59
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    $\begingroup$ These days, people are also going wild with Amazon's Mechanical Turk, Google Consumer Surveys, and few other "cloud" things. These theoretically give you access to other subject pools, but there are lots of issues there too (the "conditions" are a lot more variable, the subjects may be less motivated, and you have no real way of knowing if they are who they say...). Undergrads are right there, pretty motivated to do the experiment, and often willing to work for cheap. $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2015 at 16:03
  • $\begingroup$ @MattKrause: In my day you'd be entered into a raffle for a bottle of wine - there was never any shortage of volunteers. $\endgroup$ Dec 14, 2015 at 16:13
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Because is it known that randomisation solve the self-selection problem, I was wondering if randomisation of a non-random sample actually changed anything.

In short, no. Think of it this way: you have an urn with 100 black balls and 100 white balls. You sample 90 black balls and 10 white balls from it. Sampling randomly from this subsample will not allow you unbiased inference on the urn itself.

And also, what should we make of all these psychological experiments based on heavily self-selected sample ?

People agree that non-random sampling is a problem. But how much of a problem is also a question of your "theory" of the mechanism you're interested in. If your hypothesis deals with a mechanism that should basically be the same for all humans (i.e. experiencing a freezing sensation when dipped in icy water), then non-random selection doesn't matter that much. Unfortunately, that's often not the things we're interested in.

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  • $\begingroup$ Psychologists are asking questions like "If I am trying to break a ball by throwing it at the wall vs. putting it on a table and hitting it with a hammer, which procedure is more likely to split it?" They aren't attempting the inference on the number of balls of each color, they are attempting an inference on the breakage mode with respect to randomization to that mode. $\endgroup$
    – StasK
    Dec 14, 2015 at 15:05
  • $\begingroup$ Not necessarily, Stas. In some cases (for example the Stroop effect), the aim is to generalize to a cognitive mechanism inherent to all humans. Even if we're comparing treatments, the within-sample randomization will not allow unbiased inference to the population (which is a.s. what we're interested in). $\endgroup$
    – abaumann
    Dec 14, 2015 at 16:46
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There is a technique designed to deal with the issues you mention known as Bootstrapping. Bootstrapping is an approach where you generate new synthetic samples by drawing from your actual sample pool with replacement. You then do statistics on each of those synthetic sample pools, and compare the statistics between sets.

This has a strong advantage of allowing you to use a great many additional tools in your statistics because these synthetic samples come from a known distribution. You can then determine how good your estimators are at handling these synthetic cases. If you find that the estimators for all of your synthetic samples converge nicely onto the same result, the assumptions of bootstrapping allow you to infer that your estimators, when applied to the full sample, provide good estimates for the unknown population. If, on the other hand, you find your estimators yield very different results from synthetic sample set to synthetic sample set, you should infer that your estimators, when applied to the full sample, may not provide a very good estimate for the unknown population.

This bootstrapping approach can be used to validate whether the randomization of your non-random sample is sufficient. It can't prove it, of course, but it has been used as a tool to enhance credibility by double checking your assumption that your random sampling is sufficiently random.

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    $\begingroup$ Bootstrapping assumes that your sample is very similar to the population. Bootstrapping is useless if your sample is not representative of the population. Therefore, I'm not sure how bootstrapping can resolve the issue of non-random samples. $\endgroup$
    – Hotaka
    Dec 14, 2015 at 22:31

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