Wikipedia tells us that the score plays an important role in the Cramér–Rao inequality. It also phrases out the definition:
$$V = \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} \log{L(\theta; X)}$$
However, I cannot find an intuitive explanation of what this quantity expresses. Obviously, it somehow measures how a small change of $\theta$ will affect the log-likelihood of the observed data $X$, but what exactly does that mean?
The wikipedia article also mentions that the expected value $\mathbb{E} [V \mid \theta] = 0$. Can this be interpreted somehow?
Going a bit further, in class we were told that the Fisher information (for which I have no intuitive understanding either) is $I(\theta) = \mathbb{E} [V^2 \mid \theta]$. Combined with $\mathbb{E} [V \mid \theta] = 0$ that would imply $I(\theta) = \text{Var}[V]$, is this correct?
Thanks in advance.
PS: This is not homework.