I saw a lot of times claims that they have to be exhaustive (the examples in such books were always set in such way, that they were indeed), on the other hand I also saw a lot of times books stating they should be exclusive (for example $\mathrm{H}_{0}$ as $\mu_1=\mu_2$ and $\mathrm{H}_{1}$ as $\mu_1>\mu_2$) without clarifying the exhaustive issue. Only before typing in this question I found somewhat stronger statement on the Wikipedia page -- "The alternative need not be the logical negation of the null hypothesis".
Could someone more experienced explain which is true, and I would be grateful for shedding some light on the (historical?) reasons for such difference (the books were written by statisticians after all, i.e. scientists, not philosophers).