The proportional hazards assumption basically says that the hazard rate does not vary with time. That is, $\text{HR}(t) \equiv \text{HR}$. When can we assume this? What if the hazard ratios at various times are: $2.4, 2.36, 2.27$ and $2.03$? Can we make the proportional hazards assumption? Also we have $$ \log[h(t|\textbf{x})] = \log[h_{0}(t)] + \beta_{1}x_1 + \dots + \beta_{p}x_{p}$$
Why do we need to estimate $h_{0}(t)$? If we have $h(t|\textbf{x})$, why can't we just put all the values of the predictors to zero to get $h_{0}(t)$?
Edit. I want a means to assess whether the PH assumption is true.